Quiz: Volume 2

1

How is a past record useful to an organization?
- Provides a record of past events.
- Acts as a basis for future decisions.
- Becomes part of the memory of an organization.
- All of the above
2

What type of record is created when the Air National Guard is creating the records and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards the emergency?
- State only.
- Federal only.
- Personal only.
- State and federal only.
3

What type of record is created when it contains work-related information, but it exists for the official’s personal use and is not for transacting government business?
- State only.
- Federal only.
- Personal only.
- State and federal only.
4

Who appoints a records custodian?
- Base records manager.
- Command records manager.
- Chief of the office of record.
- Functional area records manager.
5

Who will perform periodic reviews to identify & remove draft records housed w/in the shared drives & work w/ the NCC staff to monitor/validate structure & storage location protection methods?
- Chief of office of record.
- Functional area records manager.
- Records custodian.
- Unit record professionals.
6

To ensure proper life-cycle management, where must signed/approved official e-records be transferred to?
- Shared drive designated for records
- Hard drive designated for records.
- Hard drive shared for coordination
- Shared drive for coordination and sharing
7

What are the two traditional types of vital records?
- Federal and state records.
- Disaster records and records that are mission essential.
- Privacy Act records and For Official Use Only records.
- Emergency-operating records and records needed to protect rights.
8

What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?
- Plan of action.
- Memo for record.
- Air Force instruction.
- Headquarters operating instruction.
9

How does the Air Force records information management system ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?
- Using a standard format for all Air Force file plans.
- Centralizing all records management functions Air Force-wide.
- Controlling the life cycle of all records series used throughout the Air Force
- Ensuring offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records.
10

The records information management system’s files maintenance and disposition plan lists all of the following except?
- the record’s cutoff period.
- the disposition authorities.
- the location of each record series.
- all record series for the office of record.
11

What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?
- Finding the table and rule for each record series.
- Getting your office in the records information management system.
- Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining.
- Organizing the records with the files referenced most towards the front of the cabinet.
12

Decision logic tables form a comprehensive group of series that contain records disposition schedules approved by the?
- Air Force records manager.
- archivist of the United States.
- functional area records manager.
- national archives and records administration.
13

What information does not appear on a subdivision label?
- Title.
- Cutoff.
- Item number.
- Office of record.
14

What should you remove from a document prior to filing?
- Envelopes.
- Attachments
- Staples and fasteners.
- Destruction certificate.
15

When using additional copies of a record for cross-referencing, how is the cross-reference location identified?
- Attach a cross-reference sheet to each copy of the record.
- Write “cross-referenced” across the top of each copy of the record
- Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed.
- Annotate each copy with a list of each location where the record is filed and a justification for the additional copies.
16

What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
- Period of time the record is needed.
- Number of copies the individual will make.
- Frequency of reference to the requested material.
- How many people will have access to the records.
17

Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except?
- physically stop adding records to a series.
- separating active records from inactive records.
- transfer of eligible records to the records staging area.
- point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file.
18

Which of the following is not a cutoff period?
- Monthly.
- Quarterly
- Fiscal year
- Calendar year.
19

How are long-term electronic records handled?
- Stored within the Air Force.
- Retired to authorized local staging areas
- Retired to authorized federal record centers.
- Disposed through the functional area records manager.
20

Records not authorized for a specific disposition have a retention period of what?
- Transient.
- Perpetual.
- Temporary.
- Permanent.
21

When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are?
- sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period.
- cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity.
- cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual.
- continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred.
22

Who does the office of primary responsibility submit an AF Form 525, Records Disposition Recommendation, to?
- Records manager.
- Records custodian.
- Command records manager.
- Functional area records manager.
23

What type of records does the staging area store?
- Perpetual and temporary.
- Perpetual and transitory.
- Permanent and temporary.
- Permanent and transitory.
24

Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8-year retention records in the current files area?
- Base records manager.
- Command records manager.
- Chief of the office of record
- Functional area records manager.
25

What should be done when shipping classified and unclassified records?
- Separate the records before shipping.
- Combine the records to save on shipping cost.
- Cannot ship classified records from a deployed location.
- Combine the records and annotate the records transmittal and receipt form.
26

How are magnetic mediums and tapes disposed of?
- Degauss or overwrite.
- Through the base recycling program.
- Return to the communications squadron for destruction.
- Through the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office.
27

What is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of Federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?
- The Federal Register.
- The Federal Requirements.
- The Product Announcement.
- The Information Collection Report.
28

Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?
- Priority.
- First class.
- Periodicals.
- Standard mail.
29

What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed “DO NOT FORWARD” that remain in action offices at the close of business?
- Place in an opaque container and have the highest-ranking individual take it home.
- Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly.
- Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding.
- Store in a classified storage container.
30

What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information occurred?
- Grave
- Severe
- Extremely serious.
- Exceptionally grave.
31

What classification designation is assigned to information or material of which unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?
- Secret.
- Top Secret
- Confidential.
- Unclassified.
32

What type of security classification involves information that is paraphrased or restated?
- Original.
- Compiled.
- Derivative.
- Consolidated.
33

Which of the following is not a valid method of checking an individual’s security clearance?
- Joint personnel adjudication system.
- Check their current military identification card.
- Check clearance level on permanent change of station order.
- Confirmation (written or verbal) from the person’s supervisor.
34

Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?
- Processor.
- Commander
- Security manager.
- Original classifier.
35

Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times?
- Commanders.
- Information managers.
- Personnel who have access.
- Top Secret control officers.
36

What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?
- Notify security forces upon removal of information from the container.
- Place in a manila folder and keep it with the person with the highest rank.
- Keep under constant watch and cover it with the appropriate classified cover sheet.
- Classified information should not be removed from an approved storage container.
37

What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
- Sanction.
- Violation.
- Infraction.
- Compromise
38

Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations?
- Give information on the source.
- Provide guidance on disposition of records.
- Alert holders to the presence of classified information.
- Warn holders of special access, control, or safeguarding requirements.
39

To help control accountable communications while in Air Force channels, the Air Force uses?
- container numbers.
- consolidated shipments.
- AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request.
- AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate.
40

Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number?
- 2008-UUB–058.
- UUB–2008–58.
- UUB–08–058.
- 58–008-UUB.
41

The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them?
- insured.
- express.
- certified.
- registered.
42

Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?
- Installation commander.
- Central destruction activity.
- Support group commander.
- Base information management.
43

Destruction procedures are instituted for classified material to make sure?
- the paper trail of all classified information is complete.
- the life cycle of all classified information is fully documented.
- all classified information intended for destruction is actually destroyed.
- destruction authorities for classified information are appropriately cleared.
44

Forms provide an expanded capability to manage all of the following except?
- collection.
- storage.
- retrieval.
- disposal
45

Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?
- Producing.
- Formatting.
- Posting.
- Storing
46

What are considered informational publications and normally are “how to” documents?
- Catalogs.
- Pamphlets.
- Directories
- Handbooks
47

) A form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU and is prescribed by an Air Force instruction or manual is a?
- departmental form.
- field form.
- headquarters form.
- office form
48

When is a special review conducted?
- When the POC decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review.
- When the POC decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review
- When the OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review.
- When the OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review
49

In which section of Part I of the Air Force publishing product announcement would you find general information?
- Section A.
- Section B.
- Section C
- Section D
50

In which section of Part II of the Air Force publishing product announcement would you find obsolete?
- Section A.
- Section B.
- Section C.
- Section D
51

What act requires that federal employees and the general public with disabilities have access to and use of information that is comparable to that by people without disabilities.
- Civil Rights Act.
- Rehabilitation Act.
- Paperwork Reduction Act.
- Americans with Disabilities Act
52

How many interim changes can the office of primary responsibility issue before totally revising the publication?
- 3.
- 5
- 7
- 9
53

Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter?
- content only.
- authority only.
- purpose only.
- content, authority, purpose, and application
54

Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?
- $5,000.
- $10,000.
- $15,000.
- $20,000
55

How must Social Security numbers be protected?
- Classified.
- For Official Use Only
- Unclassified restricted.
- Privacy Act information
56

To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs’?
- goal.
- mission.
- purpose.
- objective
57

What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?
- Reports control symbol.
- Unit reporting document.
- Information collection and reports.
- Records information management system
58

How does the Air Force accomplish its electronic communications objective?
- Creating only mission-critical correspondence.
- Preparing all correspondence using plain language.
- Writing communications concisely and to the point.
- Distributing communications on a need-to-know basis.
59

The main reason to use an IN TURN memorandum is to allow
- addressees to get their own copy.
- the sender to see action office coordination
- the last action office to see coordination of the sender.
- the final addressee to see the coordination of other addressees.
60

Which is not a form memorandum?
- Fill-in.
- Fill-out.
- Prewritten.
- Optional statement.
61

What type of Air Force correspondence receives the most endorsements?
- Messages.
- Memorandums.
- Personal letters.
- Staff summaries.
62

Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are?
- briefings
- position papers.
- background papers.
- memorandums for record.
63

What messaging class requires a message release authority and is directive in nature?
- Simple mail transfer protocol.
- Common access card protocol.
- Individual medium grade service
- Organizational high grade service.
64

Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking and to ensure the accuracy of the tasking?
- Taskee.
- Tasker.
- Sender.
- Receiver.
65

Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requestor?
- Office of primary responsibility.
- Initial denial authority.
- Disclosure authority.
- FOIA manager.
66

Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request?
- Office of primary responsibility.
- Disclosure authority.
- FOIA manager.
- Requestor.
67

Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site?
- FOIA manager.
- System manger
- Installation commander.
- Director, communication and information
68

Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records?
- Freedom of Information Act manager.
- Office of primary responsibility.
- Information security program manager.
- Disclosure authority.
69

When must components provide a final response to a Freedom of Information Act request that complies with the requesting requirements?
- 10 working days.
- 20 working days.
- 10 calendar days.
- 20 calendar days.
70

Who does a requester submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?
- Privacy act officer.
- Defense privacy office
- Secretary of the Air Force
- Director, communications and information.
71

Who, on a base, completes the DD Form 2564, Annual Report Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)?
- Base FOIA manager.
- Organizational commanders
- Director, communication and information
- Records office of primary responsibility
72

An official system of records must be?
- authorized by law or executive order.
- used to retrieve information on individuals.
- controlled by a Department of Defense directive.
- organized in accordance with the Federal Register.
73

Privacy Act officers are responsible for?
- deciding the need for and content of systems.
- preparing system notices and reports.
- answering the privacy act requests.
- investigating complaints.
74

What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act records?
- Official.
- Directed
- Functional
- Informational
75

What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosures of Privacy Act information?
- Release information only to senior NCOs and officers.
- Question all requestors on the purpose of the request.
- Use additional security measures, regardless of cost.
- Verify the identity of all requestors.
76

Why is a transfer of large quantities of Privacy Act records in bulk to the defense reutilization and marketing office not considered a release of personal information?
- The contract covers transfer of Privacy Act information.
- Defense reutilization and marketing office is a government agency.
- Sheer volume makes it difficult to identify specific individual records readily.
- All defense reutilization and marketing office personnel are designated representatives.
77

Which element of a Privacy Act statement provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the Department of Defense?
- Purpose
- Authority
- Disclosure.
- Routine uses.
78

When are For Official Use Only records marked?
- In review for release.
- When they are created.
- Only when they are sent off base.
- When someone asks to see the markings
79

To recycle For Official Use Only (FOUO) material, what must recycling contracts include?
- Specific responsibilities and requirements on protecting and destroying FOUO material.
- Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials.
- Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination.
- Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials.
80

What act did Congress amend to require federal agencies to make electronic and information technology accessible to people with disabilities?
- Privacy.
- Rehabilitation.
- Paper Reduction.
- Information documentation.
81

What are the two types of Web pages/sites the Air Force maintains and supports?
- General and public.
- General and secure.
- Private and public.
- Private and secure.
82

Which collaboration tool delivers Web conferencing through a Java client?
- e-CollabCenter.
- Air Force Portal.
- Defense Connect Online.
- Microsoft Office Sharepoint.
83

What is the most critical piece of the information life cycle?
- Use.
- Storage
- Disposition.
- Dissemination.
84

The introduction of what protocol will allow almost unlimited number of IP addresses and attach everything on the net?
- IPv4.
- IPv6.
- HTTP.
- DOD.
85

After creating a new e-mail account what is created next?
- Personal folders
- Exchange folders.
- Mailbox delivery
- Outlook address book
86

Once you create your “.pst” file where will you want your mail delivered to?
- “.pst” folder.
- Inbox.
- Personal folder.
- Any folder you designate
87

When creating a new organizational mailbox you must type the name as it appears in what address listing?
- Local.
- Global.
- Yellow.
- . Personal.
88

In what type of folder is a distribution list stored?
- Outbox.
- Contacts.
- Personal.
- Calendar.
89

What type of list is used to easily send a message to a group of people in Outlook?
- Personal
- Contact
- Distribution
- Frequent use.
90

What type of folders are a feature of Microsoft exchange server that provides an effective way to collect, organize and share information with others in an organization?
- Public
- Private
- Shared
- Personal
91

What type of folder is used to store items created offline that you want to send the next time you are online?
- Drafts.
- Storage.
- Outbox
- Sendmail
92

What program, when turned on, will start automatically each time Outlook is started and check the properties of each folder by date, and moves old items?
- Scanpst.exe.
- AutoArchive
- Save and store
- Mailbox cleanup
93

What is the default aging period for the calendar with AutoArchive turned on?
- 2 months.
- 4 months.
- 6 months.
- 8 months.
94

All of the following are record e-mails except those that.
- contain unique, valuable information developed in preparing position papers.
- reflect actions taken in the course of conducting agency business.
- convey unique, valuable information on agency
- convey statements of personal opinion on duplicate information.
95

What type of e-mail should never be placed in a final record-keeping system or retained on agency systems/equipment?
- Record e-mail.
- Personal e-mail.
- Draft record e-mail.
96

Mixed official/personal e-mail.
- Public
- private
- shared
- personnel

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Volume 2

How is a past record useful to an organization?

What type of record is created when the Air National Guard is creating the records and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards the emergency?

What type of record is created when it contains work-related information, but it exists for the official’s personal use and is not for transacting government business?

Who appoints a records custodian?

Who will perform periodic reviews to identify & remove draft records housed w/in the shared drives & work w/ the NCC staff to monitor/validate structure & storage location protection methods?

To ensure proper life-cycle management, where must signed/approved official e-records be transferred to?

What are the two traditional types of vital records?

What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?

How does the Air Force records information management system ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?

The records information management system’s files maintenance and disposition plan lists all of the following except?

What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?

Decision logic tables form a comprehensive group of series that contain records disposition schedules approved by the?

What information does not appear on a subdivision label?

What should you remove from a document prior to filing?

When using additional copies of a record for cross-referencing, how is the cross-reference location identified?

What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?

Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except?

Which of the following is not a cutoff period?

How are long-term electronic records handled?

Records not authorized for a specific disposition have a retention period of what?

When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are?

Who does the office of primary responsibility submit an AF Form 525, Records Disposition Recommendation, to?

What type of records does the staging area store?

Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8-year retention records in the current files area?

What should be done when shipping classified and unclassified records?

How are magnetic mediums and tapes disposed of?

What is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of Federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?

Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?

What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed “DO NOT FORWARD” that remain in action offices at the close of business?

What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information occurred?

What classification designation is assigned to information or material of which unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?

What type of security classification involves information that is paraphrased or restated?

Which of the following is not a valid method of checking an individual’s security clearance?

Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?

Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times?

What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?

What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?

Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations?

To help control accountable communications while in Air Force channels, the Air Force uses?

Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number?

The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them?

Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?

Destruction procedures are instituted for classified material to make sure?

Forms provide an expanded capability to manage all of the following except?

Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?

What are considered informational publications and normally are “how to” documents?

) A form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU and is prescribed by an Air Force instruction or manual is a?

When is a special review conducted?

In which section of Part I of the Air Force publishing product announcement would you find general information?

In which section of Part II of the Air Force publishing product announcement would you find obsolete?

What act requires that federal employees and the general public with disabilities have access to and use of information that is comparable to that by people without disabilities.

How many interim changes can the office of primary responsibility issue before totally revising the publication?

Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter?

Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?

How must Social Security numbers be protected?

To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs’?

What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?

How does the Air Force accomplish its electronic communications objective?

The main reason to use an IN TURN memorandum is to allow

Which is not a form memorandum?

What type of Air Force correspondence receives the most endorsements?

Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are?

What messaging class requires a message release authority and is directive in nature?

Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking and to ensure the accuracy of the tasking?

Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requestor?

Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request?

Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site?

Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records?

When must components provide a final response to a Freedom of Information Act request that complies with the requesting requirements?

Who does a requester submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?

Who, on a base, completes the DD Form 2564, Annual Report Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)?

An official system of records must be?

Privacy Act officers are responsible for?

What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act records?

What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosures of Privacy Act information?