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Take this quiz! Which knowledge operations management (KOM) level involves developing and implementing policy to manage information …
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Take this quiz! Which knowledge operations management (KOM) level involves developing and implementing policy to manage information throughout its life cycle and provide centralized services? Who are
CDCs Vol 1
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CDCs Vol 1
33
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Created by
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1
Which knowledge operations management (KOM) level involves developing and implementing policy to manage information throughout its life cycle and provide centralized services?
Installation.
Major command.
Staff support.
Agency.
2
Who are the knowledge operations manager’s customers?
Information users, both internal and external.
Information users both centralized and decentralized.
Information providers, both internal and external.
Information providers both centralized and decentralized.
3
What act holds agencies accountable for the results of their information technology investments?
Clinger-Cohen.
Privacy.
Global Information Grid.
Paperwork Reduction Reauthorization.
4
What function is associated with the information management core competency?
Records management.
Collaborative tools.
Database management
Information presentation.
5
What function is associated with the knowledge management core competency?
Collaborative tools.
Records management.
Database management.
Community of interest.
6
What communications-computer system (C-CS) personnel associated with the knowledge operation management (KOM) career field perform system hardware and software operations management, and administratio
Operations.
Programming.
Network integration.
Planning and implementation.
7
What communications-computer system (C-CS) personnel associated with the knowledge operation management (KOM) career field coordinate restoration of service, test subscriber equipment, and verify end-
Operations.
Programming.
Network integration.
Planning and implementation.
8
What do people involved in training decisions use as part of the instructional systems development (ISD) process?
Occupational analysis.
Workshops.
Master training list.
Job qualification standard.
9
What is the goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
Establish a viable career field education and training plan (CFETP).
Produce a master training plan (MTP) for the career field.
Set training standards for deployed troops.
Train the trainers and certifiers.
10
What do the training advisory groups (TAG) provide?
Cohesive approach to address training management issues.
Cohesive approach to address maintenance issues.
Establishment of viable training and technologies.
Establishment of training school priorities.
11
What operation do we use to ensure cross-domain freedom of action for our friends and allies, and deny that same freedom to our adversaries?
Cyber.
Defensive countercyber.
Offensive countercyber.
Cyber combat support.
12
What type of cyber operation ensures friendly freedom of action in cyberspace while denying it to adversaries?
Countercyber.
Cyber warfare.
Cyber cross-domain.
Cyber Combat support.
13
What operation must the Air Force develop to support structures and programs to sustain and develop effective cyber capabilities?
Cyber combat.
Cyber cross-domain.
Defensive countercyber.
Offensive countercyber.
14
Which AFI volume 1 titled “Network Operations” provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environment?
33–115.
33–111.
33–204.
33–402.
15
Which function circulates taskings and directions to the Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC) through communications tasking orders or network tasking orders?
Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
Network Operations Division (NOD).
Network Control Division (NCD).
Global NetOps Center (GNC).
16
At which tier do the Network Control Centers (NCC) currently provide on-site technical capability?
Tier 2.
Tier 1.
Tier 3.
Tier 4.
17
What is the Operations Flight (SCO) responsible for within the communications squadron?
Providing Network Control Center (NCC) operations to include the client service center.
Managing theater deployable communications equipment.
Managing activities relating to budgeting and billing.
Managing base-level communication security programs.
18
Who serves as the chairperson for the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
Air Force career field manager.
Base functional manager.
Air Force chief information officer.
Major command functional manager.
19
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan requirements?
Air Force career field manager.
Base functional manager.
Air Force chief information officer.
Major command functional manager.
20
Who is a voting representative during the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
Major command functional manager.
Highest ranking information manager on the base.
Communication squadron commander.
Base training manager.
21
Who identifies qualified subject matter experts to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests?
Major command functional manager.
Chief group.
Air Force career field manager.
Communication squadron commander.
22
Who appoints the wing or base level knowledge operations management (KOM) functional manager?
Communications squadron commander.
Major command functional manger.
Air Force career field manager.
Wing or base commander.
23
Who is responsible to ensure all knowledge operations managers have applicable training products?
Base functional manager.
Base training manager.
Air Force career field manager.
Major command functional manager.
24
Which communication and information (C&I) award program recognizes individuals, teams, and units for their superior performance, professional excellence, and significant contributions to the AF?
Air Force War Fighting Integration and Chief Information Officer Special Trophies and Awards Program.
General Billy Mitchell Award for Communications and Information Excellence.
Major General Harold M. McClelland Award.
Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant Award.
25
Noncommissioned officers (NCO) performing duties in which AFSC are qualified for nomination for the Air Force Knowledge Operations Management (KOM) Outstanding NCO award?
3A.
2E.
3C.
3V.
26
How many people can make up a team that is awarded the General Edwin W. Rawlings Award?
2 to 25.
2 to 50.
300 or less.
301 or more.
27
Which award winner is selected for communications and information contributions that most enhanced the Air Force’s war-fighting capability?
General Billy Mitchell Award for Communications and Information Excellence.
Major General Harold M. McClelland Award.
Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant Award.
General Edwin W. Rawlings Award.
28
Which Communications and Information Professional of the Year award represents a distinguished air power pioneer who was an Air Force communications officer?
Major General Harold M. McClelland Award.
General Edwin W. Rawlings Award.
Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant Award.
General Billy Mitchell Award for Communications and Information Excellence.
29
Which Communications and Information Professional of the Year award is named for the first commander of the Air Force Communications Service?
Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant Award.
General Edwin W. Rawlings Award.
Major General Harold M. McClelland Award.
General Billy Mitchell Award for Communications and Information Excellence.
30
What is a comprehensive, multipurpose document that covers the entire spectrum of education and training for a career field?
Career field education and training plan (CFETP).
Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS).
Specialty training standard (STS).
Master training list (MTL).
31
How many parts are there in a career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
5.
3.
2.
7.
32
Which document has a comprehensive task list describing a particular job type or duty position?
Specialty training standard (STS).
Master task list (MTL).
Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS).
Job qualification standard (JQS) continuation sheet.
33
Which is an integral part of your work center master training plan (MTP)?
Master task listing.
Training needs.
Training capabilities.
Training strategies.
34
The objective of the Network Professional Training Program is to?
ensure all network professionals are trained to standardized criteria.
ensure all squadron personnel are trained to work on the computer.
provide help, advice and authoritative reference to unit leadership.
provide light, lean, and lethal forces to our national military strategy.
35
Who is the focal point for the appointment of 3A0X1 personnel to fill quality assurance (QA) positions?
3A0X1 Base/Wing/MAJCOM functional manager.
Communications squadron commander.
3A0X1 group functional manager.
Unit commander.
36
The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) on-call or deployment period, based on a steady state environment where all requirements are known and can be met with the forces allocated within the AEF p
4 months.
1 month.
2 months.
3 months.
37
What individual/function maintains the battle rhythm of each air and space expeditionary force (AEF) cycle?
Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) center.
Unit type code (UTC) manager.
AEF concept of operations (AEF CONOPS).
Air and space expeditionary task forces (AETF).
38
What is the objective of using the total force (TF) in air and space expeditionary force (AEF)?
Pre-identify as many deployable personnel and assets in order to distribute deployment resources.
Meet warfighters’ global security requirements.
Meet changing combatant commander requirements.
Pre-deploy basic proficiency requirements, personnel, and assets in order to distribute deployment resources.
39
What individual/function integrates MAJCOM planning and preparation efforts prior to deploying to support steady state operations?
Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) center.
Unit type code (UTC) manager.
AEF concept of operations (AEF CONOPS).
Air and space expeditionary task forces (AETF).
40
A request to a duly constituted authority to reconsider its decision or its proposed action due to a valid shortfall is called a?
reclama.
shortfall.
scheduling.
planning source.
41
Using the line remark program, who conducts an annual review of steady state, exercise, and contingency operation requirements?
AEF center with support of AFCC.
Unit deployment managers (UDM) with support of the Air Force Component Commands (AFCC).
Commander Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).
MAJCOMs with support of AFCC.
42
Who eliminates line remarks and relies on standard unit type code (UTC) mission capabilities (MISCAP) to state a requirement?
AFCCs.
AEFCs.
UDMs.
COMAFFORs.
43
What unit type codes (UTC) are used by other functional areas which require a 3A0X1?
Non–6Kxxx.
Non–6Fxxx.
Non–6Axxx.
Non–6Sxxx.
44
What dramatically changed the way the Air Force tasked resources?
Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct.
Operational plans.
Unit type codes (UTC).
AEF Reporting Tool (ART) assessments.
45
The type of assessment based on the capability defined by mission capabilities (MISCAP) to include manpower and equipment requirements from the manpower and equipment force packing system (MEFPAK) is?
ART.
OPLAN.
LOGDET.
CONPLAN.
46
What type of management system does the Air Force use to report the availability of knowledge operations managers assigned to unit type code (UTC) authorizations?
AEF reporting tool (ART).
Operation plan (OPLAN).
Mission capable (MISCAP).
Manpower and equipment force packing system (MEFPAK).
47
Where do you send your required deployment equipment once it has been properly packed, palletized, and marked?
Cargo deployment function (CDF).
Installation deployment officer (IDO).
Deployment control center (DCC).
Personnel deployment function (PDF).
48
The term we use to refer to items holding up the cargo deployment function (CDF) process line is called?
frustrated cargo.
reclama.
beddown.
line remark.
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